The experts are clear about this, not just those who hold an “affirming” or “pro-gay” position, but also those who maintain a traditional theological stance on homosexuality [1]: Bibles that speak of “homosexuals” in 1 Corinthians 6:9 and 1 Timothy 1:10 mistranslate the Greek terms arsenokoites and malakos used in the original texts.
Not only that, in their desire to render them into modern English, they give a slap in the face to gay and lesbian Christians that read their translations!

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They don’t get any better when they use “effeminate” to translate the plural malakoi, let alone when they use the term “sodomites”.
If you’re a Christian in the LGBTQ+ community, you probably already know what I’m talking about. But if not, here are two of examples of 1 Corinthians 6:9-10, from fairly modern and widely used English-language Bibles: the NKJV and the NASB1995 [2]. I give only fragments, with the gaps marked […], to spare you the entire list of evildoers they include:
Do not be deceived. Neither […], nor homosexuals [malakoi], nor sodomites [arsenokoitai], nor […] will inherit the kingdom of God. (NKJV)
Do not be deceived; neither […] nor effeminate [malakoi], nor homosexuals [arsenokoitai], nor […] will inherit the kingdom of God. (NASB1995)
Some Bibles, like the NASB2020 and the TLB [3], conflate the two terms and translate them both with the single word “homosexuals”, like this:
Do not be deceived; neither […] nor homosexuals [malakoi + arsenokoitai] nor […] will inherit the kingdom of God. (NASB2020)
Let me explain why these translations are so problematic, if not plain wrong. But before you decide to chuck out your Bible with the word “homosexuals”, let me warn you that it’s actually very difficult, practically impossible, to achieve a really good translation of these verses.

This is because these passages contain illustrative lists, with no context, made up of terms that are evocative but that in some instances don’t have a very precise meaning. That’s certainly the case with the first Greek word I shall comment on: malakos.
Before I start, let me just clarify that this English version of my post is not simply a free translation of the Spanish original, as is normally the case. Instead, the original post has been adapted at various points to take into account how major English-language bibles have handled the relevant verses. Some of these adaptations are in the body of the text. Others are in the footnotes, which include additional comments and English-language sources.
Malakos
It literally means “soft”. But, as I explain in my book, it may well not refer to the “passive” participant in male-male sexual encounters, as a number of Bibles suggest [4], but simply to any person hooked on unbridled sexual relations, since it has been documented as applying to men who commit excesses with… women! Not only that, malakos as an insult could be applied to someone who was lazy, fearful, weak, extravagant or lacking in self-control in a wide range of behaviours [5].
One or two English translations do appear to take this into account, at least partially, by using less specific adjectives, such as “perverts”, to translate the plural malakoi in 1 Corinthians 6:9 [6]. And a recent Spanish translation opted for lujuriosos, which normally translates into English as “lustful” [7]. Something along these lines has least has two advantages:
- It avoids “effeminate” which, frankly, is totally out of place. It is true that in many contexts the adjective “effeminate” has negative connotations, but nowadays it hardly brings to mind immoral behaviour, which is the subject of the passage.
- Terms like “lustful” or “perverts” do suggest unhealthy or corrupt sexual conduct, but without it being necessarily homosexual in nature.
However, if the Greek malakoi can also describe a lack of control in other spheres, maybe it would be more appropriate to translate it with an even more wide-ranging adjective, such as “degenerate” or “dissolute”. That way, we would have a highly evocative but vague term, suggesting something pretty bad without specifying exactly what.
If that’s the impression that the original recipients of Paul’s letter would have had with malakoi, we would be much nearer the mark with “degenerate” or “dissolute”. In technical terms, we would have achieved good dynamic or functional equivalence [8].
Arsenokoites

With the other Greek term, arsenokoites, the literal meaning is not the problem. It is a word composed of two very common words: arsen (meaning “male” or “man”) and koite (meaning “divan”, “sofa” or “bed”). So the Bibles that translate the plural arsenokoitai with an expression like “men who have sex with men” [9] are fairly close to the original.
By the way, it is true that the word arsenokoites doesn’t appear in any earlier Greek documents and was possibly coined by the apostle Paul himself. But that, of itself, shouldn’t make us doubt its plain meaning. If you can understand me perfectly well if I talk of a cat that’s a “fly-gobbler” (a made-up word), there’s no reason to suspect that the recipients of Paul’s letters would have problems understanding him if he spoke of men that were “man-bedders” [10].

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All this leads to the first criticism of the use of “homosexuals” in 1 Corinthians 6:9 and 1 Timothy 1:10. The Greek term arsenokoites refers to a behaviour, whereas the modern term “homosexual” refers to a characteristic of certain people: they are sexually attracted to people of the same sex. So Bible translations that use “homosexuals” are actually condemning even gay Christians that are convinced that they must not give expression to their sexual urges, but remain single and celibate.
There’s another problem too: arsenokoites can only refer to male homosexuality. If you are lesbian, these particular verses say nothing about your possible sexual behaviour. This is another clear reason for not using the plural “homosexuals”: it could be understood as referring to both men and women that are gay, which is impossible for this particular Greek term (but not for most of the other words in the lists, like “thieves” or «greedy” people).
Up to this point, even the most “traditionalist” of theologians should be in agreement. But the last criticism, which I will now explain, goes further in its approach.
Going beyond the literal meaning
Even with arsenokoites (the term with the clearest meaning) there may be very legitimate reasons for questioning its applicability to all sexual relationships between two men. It’s not unreasonable to argue that it should not be applied to two gay people that are partners in a covenantal relationship based on mutual love and commitment, for the following reasons:
- It’s likely that for both the apostle Paul and the recipients of his letters the term arsenokoites would have basically brought to mind forced, abusive homosexual relations with male slaves or prostitutes. This idea is reinforced by the inclusion of adulterers, thieves, swindlers, murderers and kidnappers in these same lists; in other words, pretty nasty people.
- Obviously, Paul or his readers then couldn’t have imagined the possibility of a “gay marriage” , because it was absolutely unthinkable in the cultural context of that period.

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If you’re shocked by the idea of not applying something the Bible says, I recommend you read my previous post “We can’t take as absolutes what individual Bible verses say”. You’ll see it’s something that we all do on occasions (even the most literalist or fundamentalist among us).
Not only that, the sociocultural context is essential for discerning how or when it’s reasonable to do so. That’s something I’ll elaborate on in my next post. 😊

📌 If you would like to comment on this post (in the language of your choice), you can do so at the end of the Spanish version, here.
Notes
[1] The latest author from the traditionalist camp to make a harsh criticism of the use of “homosexuals” in these verses that I know of is Preston Sprinkle, in «Conversation 8» of his book Does the Bible Support Same-Sex Marriage? – 21 Conversations From a Historically Christian View, David C Cook, Colorado Springs, USA, 2023.
[2] NKJV: New King James’ Version, full text and more information: here. NASB1995: New American Standard Bible, 1995 edition, full text and more information: here.
[3] NASB2020: New American Standard Bible, 2020 edition, full text and more information: here. TLB: The Living Bible, full text and more information: here.
[4] The “passive participant” interpretation of malakoi in 1 Corinthians 6:9 is offered by, amongst others, the NIV (New International Version), in a footnote. A full list of the myriad ways this verse has been translated can be generated on the BibleGateway portal: here.
[5] The wide range of behaviours associated with malakos (soft) and malakia (softness) in ancient Greek literature are described in detail in: Martin, Dale B., Sex and the Single Savior – Gender and Sexuality in Biblical Interpretation, Westminster John Knox Press, 2006, pages 43-47. They refer to the weaknesses typically associated with women in the (male-dominated) societies of the time. Hence the translation of malakoi in 1 Corinthians 6:9 by J.N. Darby as “those who make women of themselves”, full text and more information: here.
[6] The CEV (Contemporary English Version) translates malakoi with “perverts”, full text and more information: here. The RSV (Revised Standard Version) uses “sexual perverts” to cover both terms, full text and more information: here.
[7] The Spanish Bible in question is the BCEE, the Spanish Bishops’ Conference Bible (Sagrada Biblia – Versión oficial de la Conferencia Episcopal Española), Madrid, 2011, which can be consulted: here. The term lujuriosos could also be translated “licentious” or “debauched”.
[8] Functional or dynamic equivalence in translation involves trying to produce a reaction or understanding equivalent to that of the original recipients of the text, even if that means departing from a literal word-for-word translation. There are many web pages which explain this, for example: here.
[9] For example, the NIV. You can see other examples on the list generated by the BibleGateway portal: here.
[10] The technical explanation for this, which I spell out in chapter 10 of my book (in Spanish), is as follows: It is only true to say that the component parts (the etymological roots) of a compound noun do not necessarily indicate its current meaning if the word in question has been in use for a very long time, so that its meaning may have changed. So Dale Martin’s argument, in chapter 3 of Sex and the Single Savior (see footnote 5) with the example “understand”, which does not mean to “stand under”, is invalid, because that word has been around for centuries. But this is never true of new compound words, invented for a particular situation, such as “underwrapping” in an instruction manual, which no competent English speaker would have trouble with, even though you’re unlikely to find it in a dictionary.